HPE6-A41 dumps 2018 - Download Free Questions and Answers PDF

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QUESTION NO: 51

A network administrator configures OSPF in a network with ArubaOS switches. The administrator is concerned that a rogue device might connect to an access layer switch and introduce OSPF routes to the company’s routing topology. The access VLANs do not contain additional routers.

What should the administrator do so switches do not form an adjacency with rogue devices on the access VLANs?

A. Implement BPDU filtering on interfaces assigned to these VLANs.

B. Configure the VLANs as passive OSPF interfaces.

C. Configure the interfaces with the highest OSPF DR priority.

D. Apply outbound routing policies to filter routes on the VLANs.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 52

A network administrator has copied new software to an ArubaOS switch and placed this software in the secondary flash location. The switch is currently booting from the primary location. The administrator wants the switch to start using the new software.

What should the administrator do to accomplish this?

A. Reboot the switch, which automatically causes the switch to use the newer software.

B. Execute the command to boot the system from the secondary flash.

C. Rename the secondary software as the primary software.

D. Copy the secondary software to the primary software slot.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 53

Which security benefit does SNMPv3 offer that SNMPv2 does not offer?

A. SSL encryption

B. Scopes

C. Data integrity

D. RADIUS groups

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 54

The network administrator wants to know which device, type, and manufacturer is connected to port 10 on an Aruba 3810 switch.

Which command could provide this information?

A. show interface 10

B. show mac-address 10

C. show lacp peer 10

D. show lldp remote-device 10

Answer: D

References:

QUESTION NO: 55

Which benefit does Aruba Clarity in Aruba AirWave provide?

A. It provides an easily searchable network topology that includes physical wired, physical wireless, and virtual network infrastructure devices.

B. It helps managers use the AirWave Management Platform (AMP) with its context-specific help and links to additional resources.

C. It enables managers to view all configuration templates for APs, and switches from a single dashboard.

D. It provides at-a-glance views of issues such as DHCP request and 802.1X authentication failures to aid in troubleshooting.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 56

A Virtual Switching Framework (VSF) fabric currently has two members and two physical 10GbE links in its VSF link.

Which administrative task can a network administrator perform on this VSF fabric when both members are online?

A. Remove a VSF member.

B. Add a new 40GbE link to the VSF link.

C. Remove one of the physical links in the VSF link.

D. Change the VSF link to use 40GbE links instead of 10GbE links.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 57

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the topology shown in the exhibit, which symptom does a network administrator see if the ArubaOS switches are in their factory default states?

A. Ports places in a blocking state

B. Mislearned MAC addresses

C. TTL expired in transit

D. Layer 3 loop

Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 43

For which of the following scenarios can you delete an entity?

A. The entity is part of a managed solution and no other items are
B.  The entity is system-defined and no other items are dependent
C. The entity is part of an unmanaged solution and another unmanaged
D. The entity is custom and uses a system-defined global option set.

Answer: A     

QUESTION NO: 44

You plan to delete a custom entity from an unmanaged solution. Which of the following statements is true?

A. You must delete the solution that contains the entity.
B. You can only delete the entity from managed solutions.
C. You must delete all records related to the entity from the database.
D. You must remove any dependencies with other objects.

Answer:   D  

QUESTION NO: 45

You plan to entity mapping to replicate data from a text field between two related entities.
For which scenario can you replicate data?

A. The target field is already mapped to a different source field.
B. The length of the source field is smaller than the destination field
C. The two entities are in a N:N relationship.
D. The new record is created and then related to the parent record

Answer:  B   

QUESTION NO: 46

Your company rents tools and machines to customers. You create a custom entity named Equipment to track the tools and machines.
You need to show the hierarchical relationships between various pieces of equipment. How should you configure the relationship?

A. Ensure that you enable Connections for the entity.
B. Set up a parental 1:N relationship between Accounts and Equipment.
C. Create a self-referential relationship and configure hierarchy settings.
D. Set up a N:N relationship between Accounts and Equipment.

Answer:   C  

QUESTION NO: 47

You need to create a hyperlink field to capture the URL for a contact's Linkedln profile.
Which data type should you use for the field?

A. single line of text
B. web
C. URL
D. text area

Answer:  A   

QUESTION NO: 48

A group of users must be able to associate a time zone with a record.
You need to implement the required functionality by using native Microsoft Dynamics 365 features.
Which field type should you use?

A. option set
B. multiple lines of text
C. whole number
D. lookup

Answer: C 

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QUESTION NO: 10

An IBM I customer has a performance requirements and is considering flash-based storage using an IBM FlashSystem V9000. The customer plans to move all data to the IBM FlashSystem V9000 with native IBM i attachment.

Which connection protocol is required for this environment?

A. 10 Gb FCoE

B. iSCSI

C. InfiniBand

D. FC

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 11

What is used to measure IBM Spectrum Suite license usage?

A. IBM Big Fix Compliance

B. Capacity Magic

C. IBM Spectrum Control

D. IBM License Metric Tool

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 12

A customer wants an IBM virtualized storage solution that is capable of providing 50 TB of flash capacity and 32x 16Gb Fibre Channel ports.

Which solution meets these requirements?

A. IBM FlashSystem V9000

B. IBM Storwize V5020

C. A clustered IBM Storwize V5030 solution

D. A single IBM Storwize V7000 control enclosure

Answer: D

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 13

A customer wants to know the advantage of DRAID over traditional RAID.

What should the technical specialist explain about DRAID?

A. All drives participate in application I/O.

B. Allocating one or more physical drives as dedicated spares

C. Dedicated spare drive location in each disk tray

D. No rebuild area capacity is required

Answer: A

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 14

A customer wants to enable encryption on its IBM Storwize V7000. The customer has an IBM Storwize V7000 Gen1 control enclosure and three Gen1 expansion enclosures.

Which solution should the technical specialist propose?

A. Replace the whole system with a Gen2 and enable the encryption license on the new system.

B. Upgrade to version 7.4 and enable the encryption license on all enclosures.

C. Replace just the IBM Storwize V7000 Gen1 control enclosure with a Gen2 and enable the encryption license.

D. Upgrade to version 7.4 and enable the encryption license on the IBM Storwize V7000 Gen1 control enclosure.

Answer: B

Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 15

A customer is implementing encryption using SKLM on IBM Spectrum Virtualize 7.8.

Which protocol is required to communicate between the storage device and the key management server (s)?

A. FC

B. NFS

C. LDAP

D. IP

Answer: A

Explanation:

Reference

https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/community/blogs/accelerate/resource/Spectrum_Virtualize_Encryption_V1.pdf?lang=en

QUESTION NO: 16

A customer using IBM Spectrum Virtualize on a single I/O group wants to maintain continuous access to data in the event of an MDisk failure.

Which license is required?

A. Full-feature license

B. Remote Mirror license

C. FlashCopy license

D. Base license

Answer: C